Chapter 3: Mastering The LSAT Logical Reasoning Section

Welcome to Logical Reasoning (LR), a section that makes up about half of the LSAT and tests your ability to analyze and evaluate arguments. This is often considered the heart of the LSAT because the skills you use here—spotting assumptions, identifying flaws, and evaluating evidence—are central to legal reasoning. In this chapter, we’ll break down everything you need to know about Logical Reasoning, including question types, strategies, and, of course, step-by-step solutions to practice questions.

Section Overview: What is Logical Reasoning?

Logical Reasoning assesses how well you can understand, critique, and complete arguments. You’ll encounter short passages followed by one or more questions asking you to analyze the structure of the argument, identify assumptions, or strengthen/weaken the reasoning.

On the LSAT, you’ll face two LR sections, each containing around 24–26 questions. These questions come from a wide variety of sources, such as newspaper articles, legal cases, and advertisements, but they always require the same set of critical reasoning skills.

Key Concepts in LSAT Logical Reasoning

Before we get into specific question types, let’s break down some of the core concepts that underpin Logical Reasoning questions.

1. Understanding Arguments: Premises, Conclusions, and Assumptions

At the heart of every Logical Reasoning question is an argument. To navigate these questions effectively, you need to recognize the three key parts of an argument:

Premises: These are the facts, evidence, or data that support the argument. They’re the foundation of the reasoning.
Conclusions: The main point the author is trying to prove or the judgment they’re making based on the premises.
Assumptions: These are the unstated ideas that the argument depends on. They bridge the gap between the premises and the conclusion. Assumptions are often crucial for answering many types of LR questions.

Example:

Argument: The local government should invest more in public parks because well-maintained parks encourage community engagement and increase property values.

Premises: Well-maintained parks encourage community engagement and increase property values.

Conclusion: The local government should invest more in public parks.

Assumptions: Well-maintained parks require government investment; the benefits outweigh the costs.

2. Common Logical Flaws

In many questions, you’ll be asked to identify flaws in reasoning. Being familiar with common logical fallacies will give you a significant advantage. Some of the most frequently tested logical flaws include:

Correlation vs. Causation: Assuming that because two things occur together, one causes the other.
Generalization: Drawing a conclusion about a whole group based on a small or unrepresentative sample.
Ad Hominem: Attacking the person making the argument rather than addressing the argument itself.
False Dilemma: Presenting only two options when, in reality, there are more.
Circular Reasoning: The conclusion is simply a restatement of the premises.

Example of a flawed argument:

Argument: We know that the new law will work because it has worked in other places where it’s been implemented.

Flaw: This is an example of a hasty generalization. Just because the law worked in other places doesn’t mean it will necessarily work here, as circumstances may be different.

Logical Reasoning Question Types on the LSAT

There are several types of questions you’ll encounter in LR. Let’s break down the most common ones, along with examples and step-by-step solutions.

1. Assumption Questions on the LSAT

What They Ask: These questions require you to identify an unstated assumption that the argument depends on.

How to Approach:

Identify the conclusion and the premises.
Ask yourself: What must be true for the conclusion to hold?
Look for the answer choice that fills the gap between the premises and the conclusion.

Practice Question:

Argument: The new software update will improve productivity in our company because it will reduce the time employees spend fixing bugs in the system.

Question: Which of the following is an assumption required by the argument?

(A) Employees at the company are currently spending a lot of time fixing bugs.
(B) The new software update has fewer bugs than the current system.
(C) Employees will use the new software update immediately after it is installed.
(D) The company plans to implement the software update soon.
(E) The software update will not introduce new bugs into the system.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Conclusion: The new software update will improve productivity.
Premise: It will reduce the time employees spend fixing bugs.
Assumption: For the argument to hold, it must be assumed that the new software update will indeed reduce time spent fixing bugs (Answer: B). Without this assumption, the conclusion falls apart.

2. Strengthen/Weaken Questions on the LSAT

What They Ask: You’ll be asked to find information that either strengthens or weakens the argument.

How to Approach:

Find the argument’s conclusion.
Determine whether the question is asking you to strengthen or weaken the argument.
Look for the answer choice that directly affects the connection between the premises and the conclusion.

Practice Question:

Argument: The city should invest more in bike lanes because they reduce traffic congestion.

Question: Which of the following, if true, most weakens the argument?

(A) The city has invested in bike lanes before, and they were underused.
(B) Traffic congestion is caused primarily by heavy trucks, which do not use bike lanes.
(C) Bike lanes are expensive to maintain.
(D) Many people prefer driving cars to riding bikes.
(E) Other cities have successfully reduced traffic congestion by investing in bike lanes.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Conclusion: The city should invest more in bike lanes.
Premise: Bike lanes reduce traffic congestion.
Weaken Strategy: To weaken the argument, we need to show that bike lanes won’t reduce traffic. The correct answer is B because it undermines the premise by suggesting that traffic congestion is caused by heavy trucks, which do not benefit from bike lanes.

3. Inference Questions on the LSAT

What They Ask: These questions require you to draw a logical conclusion based on the information presented in the argument.

How to Approach:

Stick to the facts in the passage.
Avoid drawing conclusions that go beyond what is directly stated.
The correct answer is something that must be true based on the given information.

Practice Question:

Statements: All of the employees in the marketing department have received a bonus this year. Some of the employees in the sales department have received a bonus this year.

Question: Which of the following can be inferred from the statements above?

(A) All employees in the company have received a bonus this year.
(B) Some employees in the marketing department did not receive a bonus this year.
(C) Some employees in the company did not receive a bonus this year.
(D) No employees in the sales department received a bonus this year.
(E) Only employees in the marketing and sales departments received a bonus this year.

Step-by-Step Solution:

The passage tells us that all marketing employees received a bonus and some sales employees received a bonus.
Based on this, the only conclusion we can draw is that C (“Some employees in the company did not receive a bonus this year”). The statement about “some” sales employees receiving a bonus implies that not all of them did, so it must be true that some employees did not receive a bonus.

4. Parallel Reasoning Questions on the LSAT

What They Ask: These questions ask you to identify an argument with a similar structure to the one presented in the passage.

How to Approach:

Break down the argument into premises and conclusions.
Identify the logical pattern.
Look for the answer choice that follows the same pattern of reasoning.

Practice Question:

Argument: The bakery should increase its production of croissants because croissants are its most popular item, and increasing production of popular items will likely increase profits.

Question: Which of the following arguments is most similar in structure to the one above?

(A) The bookstore should expand its children’s section because children’s books are its least expensive items, and expanding the section will make the store seem more affordable.
(B) The restaurant should serve more vegetarian dishes because vegetarian dishes are cheaper to produce, and serving cheaper dishes will increase profits.
(C) The coffee shop should offer more varieties of tea because tea is healthier than coffee, and offering healthier options will attract more customers.
(D) The hardware store should stock more power tools because power tools are its best-selling items, and stocking more best-sellers will increase profits.
(E) The florist should carry more tropical plants because tropical plants are in season, and carrying seasonal items increases customer satisfaction.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Conclusion: The bakery should increase croissant production.
Premise: Croissants are the most popular item.
The logical structure is: “Increase production of the most popular item to increase profits.”
The correct answer is D, as it mirrors the structure: “Stock more of the best-selling item to increase profits.”

Strategies for LSAT Logical Reasoning Success

Success in the Logical Reasoning section comes down to mastering the basic structure of arguments, recognizing common question types, and practicing regularly. Here are a few additional strategies to keep in mind:

Prephrase Answers: After reading the question, try to predict the answer before looking at the answer choices. This can help you focus and avoid being swayed by tricky wrong answers.
Practice Under Timed Conditions: The more comfortable you are with the time constraints, the better you’ll perform under pressure. Try to complete LR sections in under 35 minutes to mimic real test conditions.
Flag Difficult Questions: Don’t waste too much time on questions you find especially difficult. Flag them and return to them later if time allows.

Take Your Free LSAT Logical Reasoning Diagnostic Practice Test

Before diving further into Logical Reasoning strategies, it’s time for a quick self-assessment! Taking a Free Logical Reasoning Diagnostic Test is an essential first step in your LSAT prep journey. Think of it as your personal blueprint—it reveals your strengths, areas for improvement, and the specific skills you need to sharpen. Here’s why this diagnostic test can be a game-changer for your preparation.

Why Take a FREE Diagnostic LSAT Practice Test?

1. Establish Your Baseline:
The LSAT is unlike any other standardized test. Whether you’re a seasoned test-taker or new to LSAT prep, knowing where you stand is crucial. A diagnostic test provides a clear snapshot of your current performance in Logical Reasoning, helping you:

Measure your initial skills.
Identify which question types you excel at (e.g., Assumption or Inference questions).
Pinpoint areas that need more attention (e.g., Logical Flaws or Parallel Reasoning).

Starting with a baseline helps you track your progress as you move through this study guide, making sure you’re always moving forward.

2. Personalized Study Focus:
Every test-taker is different—some students might struggle with time management, while others need to refine their reasoning techniques. After taking the diagnostic, you’ll know exactly where to focus your study efforts:

Do you need to improve your accuracy with difficult questions like Assumption and Flaw questions?
Are you struggling with specific Logical Reasoning patterns that can be fixed with targeted practice?
Is your timing a challenge, and do you need to work on faster question analysis?

By understanding your specific needs, you can create a study plan that’s tailored to you—not a one-size-fits-all approach.

3. Build Confidence Early:
Sometimes, students underestimate the value of a diagnostic because they’re worried about seeing low scores. But remember, the goal of a diagnostic test isn’t to showcase perfection—it’s about revealing opportunities for improvement. You’ll discover:

Which areas you’re naturally strong in, giving you a confidence boost.
Early signs of improvement after studying specific strategies.
A sense of how the test works, reducing anxiety about the unknown.

Starting early with a diagnostic test will also allow you to set realistic goals and expectations, helping you stay motivated and focused throughout your LSAT journey.

How to Use Your LSAT Diagnostic Practice Test Results

Once you’ve completed the diagnostic, the real value lies in how you interpret your results. Here’s a step-by-step guide to help you make the most of your performance analysis:

1. Analyze Your Results

When you receive your score, don’t just look at the raw number. Instead, break it down into question types and timing:

Accuracy: Which question types did you get right or wrong?
Patterns: Did you miss certain question types consistently? Did you struggle with more difficult questions toward the end of the section?
Timing: Did you finish all questions, or did you rush toward the end? Did you take too long on specific question types?

2. Focus on Weak Areas First

Now that you know which areas you struggled with, plan your study sessions around those. For example:

If Assumption questions gave you trouble, review that section in the guide, focusing on how to identify hidden premises.
If you struggled with time management, practice skimming strategies and prioritize the easier questions first in each practice set.

3. Track Your Progress

Taking a diagnostic test allows you to measure growth as you progress through your prep. Periodically revisit the test or take additional practice exams, comparing your scores over time. This will help you see tangible improvements and adjust your study plan as necessary.

4. Integrate Diagnostic Insights with Full-Length Practice

Don’t just stop at one diagnostic. As you continue studying, schedule more full-length, timed LSAT practice tests. This will help you:

Apply what you’ve learned in a real exam scenario.
Monitor how your Logical Reasoning skills improve in the context of the entire LSAT.

Benefits of Taking TutorOne’s Free Diagnostic Test

By taking the Free Logical Reasoning Diagnostic Test offered by TutorOne, you gain several advantages that will accelerate your LSAT preparation:

Immediate Feedback: Upon completing the test, you’ll receive instant results with a detailed breakdown of your performance on each question type. This personalized feedback will help you zero in on your strengths and weaknesses.
Tailored Study Plan: Based on your diagnostic results, TutorOne can recommend a customized study plan that focuses on the areas where you need the most improvement. You’ll also receive access to practice questions and resources targeted to those weak spots.
Access to Premium Resources: Diagnostic test takers get exclusive access to additional LSAT content, including video explanations, drills for Logical Reasoning question types, and even one-on-one sessions with LSAT tutors.
Motivation to Improve: Seeing where you currently stand can be a powerful motivator. Whether you’re scoring well and want to push for a higher score, or you have room for improvement, your diagnostic results will help you stay focused on the goal: conquering the LSAT.

What Comes Next?

After completing your diagnostic, the next step is to dive into the targeted study and practice sections laid out in this guide. Take the insights from your diagnostic test and use them to:

Focus on specific Logical Reasoning question types where you need the most improvement.
Practice time management by working through practice sets under timed conditions.
Continue tracking your progress through regular practice and full-length tests.

Ready to take the plunge? Head over to TutorOne’s website and sign up for your Free Logical Reasoning Diagnostic Test now. It’s time to put your skills to the test and take the first concrete step toward LSAT success!

LSAT Logical Reasoning Diagnostic Test 1 - FREE LSAT Practice Test

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1. Critic: Although filmmakers frequently profess an intention to produce original work, such claims are belied by the widespread use of generic conventions that predetermine the structures of most films. Plot structures, character types, and even themes and visual motifs, all based on formulas long popular with both filmmakers and audiences, are still in general use. To what extent can a filmmaker’s work be considered original if it follows such predetermined formulas?
Which one of the following is a principle underlying the critic’s argument?

A) An artistic work can be considered original only if it does not use popular themes.

B) If a filmmaker’s work makes use of formulaic structures, then that work is not original.

C) The fact that a filmmaker’s work makes use of popular structures and themes does not mean that the work is not original.

D) If a filmmaker’s work is original, then that work does not make use of generic conventions.

E) Filmmakers should avoid using visual motifs that are popular among audiences.

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2. Economist: Contrary to the usual assumption, an increase in average family income is not always a sign of economic improvement. For example, in one country, an increase in the average family income coincided with a substantial increase in unemployment. What happened was that many low-income workers lost their jobs, leaving a smaller number of higher-paid workers, thereby increasing the average family income. Thus, increases in average family income should not necessarily be taken as evidence of economic improvement.
The economist’s conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

A) Low-income families were less likely than high-income families to be affected by the rise in unemployment.

B) The loss of low-income jobs did not cause an increase in the incomes of families that remained employed.

C) The rise in unemployment did not affect average family income in a positive manner.

D) Increases in average family income generally coincide with increases in unemployment.

E) Average family income is typically unaffected by rises in unemployment.

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3. Editor: Newspapers tend to become more profitable when they increase their circulations, but they must balance this against maintaining journalistic integrity. For example, a profitable tabloid’s success is often based on sensationalist stories that are only loosely tied to actual events, while a respected newspaper’s success is often based on its reputation for being a trustworthy source. Thus, a newspaper that loses sight of its purpose in order to increase circulation is unlikely to achieve long-term profitability.
Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the editor’s argument?

A) A tabloid’s long-term success depends on how closely its stories are tied to actual events.

B) A newspaper can become less profitable when it compromises its journalistic standards to attract new readers.

C) A respected newspaper’s success depends less on maintaining circulation than it does on maintaining journalistic integrity.

D) If a tabloid is profitable, it must be because it has focused more on increasing circulation than on maintaining journalistic standards.

E) Journalistic integrity is the most important factor in determining whether a newspaper will achieve long-term profitability.

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4. Psychologist: Most people have some conscious awareness of their motivations for their actions, but the influence of motives of which people are unaware is often much stronger. This has been demonstrated by social science research showing that the subconscious motives people offer as their reasons for their behavior often differ from the reasons offered by independent observers.
Which one of the following conclusions is best supported by the psychologist’s statements?

A) People’s subconscious motives for acting in a particular way are often difficult to identify even after they are made aware of these motives.

B) People often do not know the real reasons for their own actions.

C) The motives for people’s behavior often differ depending on whether they are consciously aware of these motives.

D) Independent observers usually attribute motives to people that differ greatly from the motives people attribute to themselves.

E) People are usually not consciously aware of any of the reasons for their actions.

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5. Geneticist: Genes, like viruses, have a strong tendency to self-replicate; this has led some biologists to call genes “selfish.” This term is, in this instance, intended to be defined behaviorally: it describes what genes do without ascribing intentions to them. But even given that genes are ascribed no intentions, the label “selfish” as applied to genes is a misnomer. Selfishness only concerns bringing about the best conditions for oneself; creating replicas of oneself is not selfish.
Which one of the following, if assumed, allows the geneticist’s conclusion to be properly drawn?

A) Bringing about the best conditions for oneself is less important than doing this for others.

B) Creating replicas of oneself does not help bring about the best conditions for oneself.

C) The behavioral definition of “selfish” is incompatible with its everyday definition.

D) To ignore the fact that self-replication is not limited to genes is to misunderstand genetic behavior.

E) Biologists have insufficient evidence about genetic behavior to determine whether it is best described as selfish.

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6. In a poll of a representative sample of a province’s residents, the provincial capital was the city most often selected as the best place to live in that province. Since the capital is also the largest of that province’s many cities, the poll shows that most residents of that province generally prefer life in large cities to life in small cities.
The argument is most vulnerable to the criticism that it

A) overlooks the possibility that what is true of the residents of the province may not be true of other people.

B) does not indicate whether most residents of other provinces also prefer life in large cities to life in small cities.

C) takes for granted that when people are polled for their preferences among cities, they tend to vote for the city that they think is the best place to live.

D) overlooks the possibility that the people who preferred small cities over the provincial capital did so not because of their general feelings about the sizes of cities, but because of their general feelings about capital cities.

E) overlooks the possibility that most people may have voted for small cities even though a large city received more votes than any other single city.

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7. Industrial adviser: If two new processes under consideration are not substantially different in cost, then the less environmentally damaging process should be chosen. If, however, a company already employs an environmentally damaging process and retooling for a less damaging process would involve substantial cost, then that company should retool only if retooling is either legally required or likely to bring long-term savings substantially greater than the cost.
Which one of the following judgments conforms most closely to the principles described by the industrial adviser?

A) A new law offering companies tax credits for reducing pollution would enable a company to realize a slight long-term savings by changing to a more environmentally sound process for manufacturing dye, despite the substantial cost of retooling. In light of the new law, the company should change its process.

B) In manufacturing pincushions, a company uses a process that, though legal, has come under heavy public criticism for the environmental damage it causes. The company should change its process to preserve its public image, despite some expected long-term losses from doing so.

C) A company is considering two new processes for the manufacture of staples. Process A is more expensive than process B but not substantially so. However, process A is substantially less environmentally damaging than process B. The company should implement process A.

D) Two new processes are being considered for the manufacture of ball bearings. The processes are similar, except that the chemicals used in process A will pollute a nearby river slightly more than will the chemicals for process B. Process A is also slightly cheaper than process B. The company should use process A.

E) A company is considering changing its process for manufacturing shoelaces. The new process is cheaper and less environmentally damaging than the old. Both are legal. Changing processes would be costly, but the cost would be almost entirely recovered in long-term savings. The company should switch processes.

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8. Chiu: The belief that a person is always morally blameworthy for feeling certain emotions, such as unjustifiable anger, jealousy, or resentment, is misguided. Individuals are responsible for only what is under their control, and whether one feels such an emotion is not always under one’s control.
Chiu’s conclusion follows logically if which one of the following is assumed?

A) Individuals do not have control over their actions when they feel certain emotions.

B) If a person is morally blameworthy for something, then that person is responsible for it.

C) Although a person may sometimes be unjustifiably angry, jealous, or resentful, there are occasions when these emotions are appropriate.

D) If an emotion is under a person’s control, then that person cannot hold others responsible for it.

E) The emotions for which a person is most commonly blamed are those that are under that person’s control.

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9. The typological theory of species classification, which has few adherents today, distinguishes species solely on the basis of observable physical characteristics, such as plumage color, adult size, or dental structure. However, there are many so-called “sibling species,” which are indistinguishable on the basis of their appearance but cannot interbreed and thus, according to the mainstream biological theory of species classification, are separate species. Since the typological theory does not count sibling species as separate species, it is unacceptable.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that

A) the argument does not evaluate all aspects of the typological theory.

B) the argument confuses a necessary condition for species distinction with a sufficient condition for species distinction.

C) the argument, in its attempt to refute one theory of species classification, presupposes the truth of an opposing theory.

D) the argument takes a single fact that is incompatible with a theory as enough to show that theory to be false.

E) the argument does not explain why sibling species cannot interbreed.

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10. It would not be surprising to discover that the trade routes between China and the West were opened many centuries, even millennia, earlier than 200 B.C., contrary to what is currently believed. After all, what made the Great Silk Road so attractive as a trade route linking China and the West—level terrain, easily traversable mountain passes, and desert oases—would also have made it an attractive route for the original emigrants to China from Africa and the Middle East, and this early migration began at least one million years ago.
That a migration from Africa and the Middle East to China occurred at least one million years ago figures in the above reasoning in which one of the following ways?

A) It is cited as conclusive evidence for the claim that trade links between China and the Middle East were established long before 200 B.C.

B) It is an intermediate conclusion made plausible by the description of the terrain along which the migration supposedly took place.

C) It is offered as evidence in support of the claim that trade routes between China and the West could easily have been established much earlier than is currently believed.

D) It is offered as evidence against the claim that trade routes between China and Africa preceded those eventually established between China and the Middle East.

E) It is the main conclusion that the argument attempts to establish about intercourse between China and the West.

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11. It is a mistake to think, as ecologists once did, that natural selection will eventually result in organisms that will be perfectly adapted to their environments. After all, perfect adaptation of an individual to its environment is impossible, for an individual’s environment can vary tremendously; no single set of attributes could possibly prepare an organism to cope with all the conditions that it could face.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main conclusion of the argument?

A) It is not possible for an individual to be perfectly adapted to its environment.

B) Natural selection will never result in individuals that will be perfectly adapted to their environments.

C) No single set of attributes could enable an individual organism to cope with all of the conditions that it might face.

D) Because an individual’s environment can vary tremendously, no individual can be perfectly adapted to its environment.

E) Ecologists once believed that natural selection would eventually result in individuals that will be perfectly adapted to their environments.

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12. The number of different synthetic chemical compounds that are known to be carcinogenic but are nonetheless used as pesticides, preservatives, or food additives is tiny compared to the number of nonsynthetic carcinogenic compounds widely found in plants and animals. It is therefore absurd to suppose that the rise in the cancer rate in recent decades is due to synthetic carcinogens. The reasoning above is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that it overlooks the possibility that

A) the rise in the cancer rate in recent decades is due to increased exposure to nonsynthetic pollutants.

B) the rise in the cancer rate in recent decades is due to something other than increased exposure to carcinogens.

C) some synthetic chemical compounds that are not known to be carcinogenic are in other respects toxic.

D) people undergo significantly less exposure to carcinogens that are not synthetic than to those that are synthetic.

E) people can vary greatly in their susceptibility to cancers caused by nonsynthetic carcinogens.

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13. Some statisticians believe that the method called extreme value theory (EVT) is a powerful analytical tool. The curves generated by traditional statistical methods to analyze empirical data on human longevity predict that some humans would live beyond 130 years. According to the curves EVT generates, however, the limit on human life spans is probably between 113 and 124 years. To date, no one has lived beyond the upper limits indicated by EVT analysis.
Which one of the following can be properly inferred from the statements above?

A) EVT is, in general, a more reliable method for projecting future trends based on past observations than are traditional statistical methods.

B) EVT fits the data about the highest observed human life spans more closely than do traditional statistical methods.

C) According to the findings derived through the use of EVT, it is physically impossible for any human being to live longer than 124 years.

D) Given the results generated by EVT, there is no point in conducting research aimed at greatly extending the upper limit on human life spans.

E) Traditional statistical methods of empirical data analysis should eventually be replaced by some version of EVT.

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14. Columnist: A recent research report suggests that by exercising vigorously, one significantly lowers one’s chances of developing certain cardio-respiratory illnesses. But exercise has this effect, the report concludes, only if the exercise is vigorous. Thus, one should not heed older studies purporting to show that nonstrenuous walking yields the same benefits.
The reasoning in the columnist’s argument is most vulnerable to criticism on the grounds that this argument

A) fails to consider the possibility that the risk of developing certain cardio-respiratory illnesses can be reduced by means other than exercise.

B) fails to consider that those who exercise vigorously are at increased risk of physical injury caused by exercise.

C) overlooks the possibility that vigorous exercise may prevent life-endangering diseases that have little to do with the cardio-respiratory system.

D) fails to consider the possibility that those who engage in vigorous physical exercise are more likely than others to perceive themselves as healthy.

E) fails to show that a certain conclusion of the recent report is better justified than an opposing conclusion reached in older studies.

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15. Philosopher: An action is morally good if it both achieves the agent’s intended goal and benefits someone other than the agent.
Which one of the following judgments most closely conforms to the principle cited by the philosopher?

A) Colin chose to lie to the authorities questioning him, in an attempt to protect his friends. The authorities discovered his deception and punished Colin and his friends severely. But because he acted out of love for his friends, Colin’s action was morally good.

B) Derek prepared a steak dinner to welcome his new neighbors to the neighborhood. When they arrived for dinner, Derek found out that the newcomers were strict vegetarians. Though the new neighbors were still grateful for Derek’s efforts to welcome them, Derek’s action was not morally good.

C) Ellen worked overtime hoping to get a promotion. The extra money she earned allowed her family to take a longer vacation that year, but she failed to get the promotion. Nevertheless, Ellen’s action was morally good.

D) Louisa tried to get Henry into serious trouble by making it appear that he stole some expensive clothes from a store. But the store’s detective realized what Louisa did, and so Louisa was punished rather than Henry. Since she intended to harm Henry, Louisa’s action was not morally good.

E) Yolanda took her children to visit their grandfather because she wanted her children to enjoy their vacation and she knew they adored their grandfather. The grandfather and the children all enjoyed the visit. Though Yolanda greatly enjoyed the visit, her action was morally good.

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16. We can now dismiss the widely held suspicion that sugar consumption often exacerbates hyperactivity in children with attention deficit disorder. A scientific study of the effects of three common sugars—sucrose, fructose, and glucose—on children who have attention deficit disorder, with experimental groups each receiving a type of sugar in their diets and a control group receiving a sugar substitute instead of sugar, showed no statistically significant difference between the groups in thinking or behavior.
Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?

A) Only one of the three types of sugar used in the study was ever widely suspected of exacerbating hyperactivity.

B) The consumption of sugar actually has a calming effect on some children.

C) The consumption of some sugar substitutes exacerbates the symptoms of hyperactivity.

D) The study included some observations of each group in contexts that generally tend to make children excited and active.

E) Some children believe that they can tell the difference between the taste of sugar and that of sugar substitutes.

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17. Global ecological problems reduce to the problem of balancing supply and demand. Supply is strictly confined by the earth’s limitations. Demand, however, is essentially unlimited, as there are no limits on the potential demands made by humans. The natural tendency for there to be an imbalance between demand and sustainable supply is the source of these global problems. Therefore, any solutions require reducing current human demand.
Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?

A) Supply and demand tend to balance themselves in the long run.

B) It is possible to determine the limitations of the earth’s sustainable supply.

C) Actual human demand exceeds the earth’s sustainable supply.

D) It is never possible to achieve a balance between the environmental supply and human demand.

E) Human consumption does not decrease the environmental supply.

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18. Deirdre: Many philosophers have argued that the goal of every individual is to achieve happiness—that is, the satisfaction derived from fully living up to one’s potential. They have also claimed that happiness is elusive and can be achieved only after years of sustained effort. But these philosophers have been unduly pessimistic, since they have clearly exaggerated the difficulty of being happy. Simply walking along the seashore on a sunny afternoon causes many people to experience feelings of happiness.
Which one of the following most accurately describes a reasoning flaw in Deirdre’s argument?

A) It dismisses a claim because of its source rather than because of its content.

B) It fails to take into account that what brings someone happiness at one moment may not bring that person happiness at another time.

C) It allows the key term 'happiness' to shift in meaning illicitly in the course of the argument.

D) It presumes, without providing justification, that happiness is, in fact, the goal of life.

E) It makes a generalization based on the testimony of a group whose views have not been shown to be representative.

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19. Landscape architect: If the screen between these two areas is to be a hedge, that hedge must be of either hemlocks or Leyland cypress trees. However, Leyland cypress trees cannot be grown this far north. So if the screen is to be a hedge, it will be a hemlock hedge.
In which one of the following is the pattern of reasoning most similar to that in the landscape architect’s argument?

A) If there is to be an entrance on the north side of the building, it will have to be approached by a ramp. However, a ramp would become impossibly slippery in winter, so there will be no entrance on the north side.

B) If visitors are to travel to this part of the site by automobile, there will be a need for parking spaces. However, no parking spaces are allowed for in the design. So if visitors are likely to come by automobile, the design will be changed.

C) The subsoil in these five acres either consists entirely of clay or consists entirely of shale. Therefore, if one test hole in the area reveals shale, it will be clear that the entire five acres has a shale subsoil.

D) Any path along this embankment must be either concrete or stone. But a concrete path cannot be built in this location. So if there is to be a path on the embankment, it will be a stone path.

E) A space the size of this meadow would be suitable for a playground or a picnic area. However, a playground would be noisy and a picnic area would create litter. So it will be best for the area to remain a meadow.

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20. Advertisement: Seventy-five percent of dermatologists surveyed prefer Dermactin to all other brands of skin cream. Why? We consulted dermatologists during the development of Dermactin to ensure that you have the best skin cream on the market. So if you need a skin cream, use Dermactin.
The reasoning in the advertisement is questionable because the advertisement

A) Overlooks the possibility that other types of doctors have cause to use Dermactin.

B) Fails to state the number of dermatologists surveyed, which leaves open the possibility that the sample of doctors is too small to be reliable.

C) Presumes, without providing justification, that some dermatologists are less qualified than others.

D) Relies on an inappropriate appeal to the opinions of consumers.

E) Overlooks the possibility that for some people, using no skin cream is preferable.

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21. We already knew from thorough investigation that immediately prior to the accident, either the driver of the first vehicle changed lanes without signaling or the driver of the second vehicle was driving with excessive speed. Either of these actions would make a driver liable for the resulting accident. But further evidence has proved that the first vehicle’s turn signal was not on, though the driver of that vehicle admits to having changed lanes. So the driver of the second vehicle is not liable for the accident.
Which one of the following would be most important to know in evaluating the conclusion drawn above?

A) Whether the second vehicle was being driven at excessive speed.

B) Whether the driver of the first vehicle knew that the turn signal was not on.

C) Whether any other vehicles were involved in the accident.

D) Whether the driver of the first vehicle was a reliable witness.

E) Whether the driver of the second vehicle would have seen the turn signal flashing had it been on.

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22. Editorial: Almost every year the Smithfield River floods the coastal fishing community of Redhook, which annually spends $3 million on the cleanup.

Some residents have proposed damming the river, which would cost $5 million but would prevent the flooding. However, their position is misguided.

A dam would prevent nutrients in the river from flowing into the ocean. Fish that now feed on those nutrients would start feeding elsewhere. The loss of these fish would cost Redhook $10 million annually.
Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main conclusion of the editorial’s argument?

A) For Redhook to build a dam on the Smithfield River would be a mistake.

B) The Smithfield River should be dammed to prevent flooding.

C) Nutrients from the Smithfield River are essential to the local fish population.

D) Damming the Smithfield River is not worth the high construction costs for such a project.

E) The Smithfield River floods cost Redhook $3 million every year.

Your score is

The average score is 6%

Frequently asked questions about the LSAT Logical Reasoning (LR) section

Here’s a fun and detailed guide to help you tackle frequently asked questions about the LSAT Logical Reasoning (LR) section!

1. What is Logical Reasoning on the LSAT?

Logical Reasoning (LR) is like solving brain teasers for lawyers-in-training! On the LSAT, it involves analyzing arguments, identifying flaws, and understanding the structure of reasoning. The section gives you short passages, usually in the form of an argument, and asks questions like, “What’s the main point?” or “What assumption is the author making?” The goal is to test your ability to think critically and evaluate arguments, which are essential skills for law school and legal practice.

2. Is LSAT Logical Reasoning hard?

It can be! Logical Reasoning tests how well you can break down arguments and pinpoint their strengths and weaknesses, which can be tricky if you’re not used to it. The questions vary in difficulty, so you’ll encounter both easy and mind-bendingly tough ones. But don’t worry—like any puzzle, with enough practice, you’ll start spotting patterns and common traps.

3. Why am I struggling with Logical Reasoning on the LSAT?

If you’re struggling, you’re not alone! The LR section is challenging because it requires a different kind of thinking than what most of us are used to. It’s not just about being “smart”; it’s about understanding how arguments work. You might be rushing through the questions, not fully understanding the passage, or falling for common traps set by the test makers. Take your time to analyze each question, and practice focusing on the structure of the argument rather than just its content.

Here’s a pro tip: Focus on identifying the conclusion and the premises in each argument. Once you nail that, the question becomes much easier to handle!

4. What percentage of the LSAT is Logical Reasoning?

The Logical Reasoning section typically makes up about 50% of your LSAT score. There are usually two LR sections in the test, each containing about 24-26 questions. So mastering this section is key to boosting your overall score.

5. How many wrong on LSAT to get 167?

To get a 167, you can usually afford to get around 13 to 16 questions wrong across all sections. However, this can vary slightly depending on the specific test’s scoring curve. That means you should aim to get about 75 to 80 questions correct out of 100.

6. What is the loophole in LSAT Logical Reasoning about?

“The Loophole in Logical Reasoning” is a popular LSAT prep book by Ellen Cassidy, which teaches a strategy for spotting flaws in arguments—those sneaky little errors the test writers throw in. It focuses on finding the “loophole” or flaw in the argument that invalidates the conclusion, which can help you answer questions faster and more accurately. Essentially, it’s about mastering the art of poking holes in bad reasoning!

Check out the book here:

The Loophole in LSAT Logical Reasoning

7. Are logic games the hardest part of LSAT?

For many test-takers, Logic Games (also known as Analytical Reasoning) are the hardest part of the LSAT because they require a very specific set of skills—like diagramming and making inferences—that people aren’t used to. But with practice, Logic Games can actually become one of the easiest sections to improve on. So, while they might be tricky at first, they can become a section you look forward to!

8. Why is LSAT getting rid of logic games?

The LSAT isn’t fully getting rid of logic games just yet, but it is expected to change after a settlement with a blind test-taker who argued that the section was inaccessible. The LSAC (Law School Admission Council) is working on creating a new format that assesses the same skills in a different way. So, changes are on the horizon, but logic games are still on the test for now.

For more on this development:

LSAT to Replace Logic Games

9. How can I improve my Logical Reasoning for the LSAT?

Improving on LR is all about practice and strategy. Here’s how you can boost your LR performance:

Learn the question types: Know the difference between assumption questions, strengthen/weaken, inference, etc.
Analyze argument structure: Focus on spotting the conclusion and identifying the support for it.
Review wrong answers: Go over your mistakes to understand why each wrong answer was tempting and how to avoid it next time.
Practice, practice, practice: Use timed drills to improve speed and accuracy.

Check out free practice resources here:

Khan Academy LSAT Prep

10. How many questions can I get wrong on the LSAT to get a 170?

To get a 170, which is an excellent score, you can typically get around 9 to 12 questions wrong out of the 100 or so questions on the test. This means you should aim to get at least 88-91 correct answers. The LSAT is forgiving—you don’t need to be perfect to score well!

11. How long should each Logical Reasoning question take on the LSAT?

On average, you should spend about 1 minute and 25 seconds on each LR question. There are usually about 25 questions to answer in 35 minutes, so time management is crucial. Practice timing yourself during mock tests to get a feel for the pace you need to maintain.

12. What are the key words for LSAT Logical Reasoning?

Certain key words and phrases help you identify the structure of the argument:

Conclusion Indicators: “Therefore,” “thus,” “hence,” “so,” “consequently”
Premise Indicators: “Because,” “since,” “for,” “given that”
Counter-arguments: “However,” “although,” “despite,” “but”

These words give you clues about the role each part of the argument plays, so keep an eye out for them!

13. Has LSAT Logical Reasoning gotten harder?

While the general format of the LSAT hasn’t changed much, some test-takers feel the questions have become more nuanced over the years. The difficulty can fluctuate slightly depending on the specific test, but overall, the LSAT is designed to be consistent in terms of difficulty from year to year. With proper prep, the level of difficulty should be manageable!

14. What are the most common types of Logical Reasoning questions on the LSAT?

Some of the most common question types you’ll encounter in the Logical Reasoning section are:

Assumption: Identify an unstated premise necessary for the argument to work.
Strengthen/Weaken: Find a piece of evidence that either supports or undermines the argument.
Flaw: Pinpoint the reasoning error in the argument.
Inference: Identify what must be true based on the information provided.
Main Point: Determine the central conclusion of the argument.

Understanding each type of question is the key to scoring well on LR! This should help you navigate the LSAT Logical Reasoning section with more confidence! If you need practice questions or want to dive deeper into the specifics, try LSAC’s Practice Tests for real test experience.

In the next section, we’ll move on to the Analytical Reasoning section, also known as Logic Games, where we’ll break down strategies for organizing and interpreting data to solve complex puzzles. Ready to flex your logic muscles? Let’s dive in!